For example, much ado is made about a typeface design claimed to be the sole property of a deceased designer.
His estate has sold these "intellectual property rights", if there are any, to a different entity, located at a different facility, to be used in a different technology.
Another type foundry in a different country, subject to a different set of US Copyright laws, higher than those in the first party's country, creates a different font, with a different name, with subtle design differences, with improved side-bearings, better alignment of nikkud and diacriticals, and even intelligent built-in programming features, due to its advanced font format technology.
Is the second party infringing upon the font rights of the first party?
Does the second party need to seek permission from the first party to sell its font offering?
Does the second party owe the first party money?
Why?
Remember, according to laws in the United States, the first party has no rights whatsoever.