Do you mean it was hard to read itself, or that it was hard to read for people who were not used to it? (for example in the conquered territories)
I think it is pretty obvious that the latter was the reason to ban blackletter typefaces. But I don't know how one could ever really prove this unless one would find some secret diary pages of Hitler.
hi guys im new to the forum i discovered you while doing research for my dissertation and i was wondering if anyone could help me out? Basically im a masters degree student and im trying to prove that the abolition of german black letter in 1941 was due to its ilegibility and not the associations with 'jewishness'. If anyone knows any good source material or could be of any help it would be seriously appreciated. Thank You