Dear Typophiles,
I’m reading the book ‘What is Typography?’ from David Jury, Rotovision.
It says on page 52: ‘The sans-serif face was slightly more legible for the adult readers, but no measurable differences between the faces were observed with the children.’
And then comes the author’s comment: ‘[The sans serif used was Gill Sans, the serifed face was Jenson. The slight preference recorded by adults for the serifed face could be explained simply by the fact that most of their reading will have been of serifed faces.]’
Since I’m not a native English speaker, I’m a bit confused, for me there seems to be a contradiction between the two sentences. The first says the sans-serif is more legible, but the second sentence says the serif face was it preferred by adults. Or does the author means that ‘if the serif face would have been preferred, that could be explained by the fact…, although the serif face was not preferred’?
Is it a contradiction or am I missing something due to my English? If it’s a contradiction, which statement is right in your opinion? As far as I know serif faces are a tiny bit more legible.
Thank you,
tebalazs